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Answer by Ted for Why doesn't the definition of dependence require that one can expresses each vector in terms of the others?

Your intuition for linear (in)dependence is very close. Based on your intuition, the definition you're looking for is:

$\{v_1, ..., v_k\}$ is linearly dependent if there exists an index $i$ and scalars $c_1, ..., c_k$ (excluding $c_i$) such that $v_i = \sum_{j \ne i} c_j v_j.$

You can prove that this is equivalent to the standard definition.

Notice how this differs from your proposed definition:

(1) It says there exists a $v_i$, not for all $v_i$.

(2) There is no zero restriction on the $c_i$.

(1) is important because all it takes is a single redundancy to get linear dependence. Not all vectors have to expressible in terms of the others. To see why this is the case, just think about the case where a set $\{v_1, \ldots, v_k\}$ is already dependent and then I suddenly add a $v_{k+1}$ which cannot be expressed as a linear combination of $v_1, \ldots, v_k$. Adding a vector to a dependent set shouldn't turn it into an independent set.

As for (2), the standard definition needs to say that $c$'s can't be all 0 because you don't want $\sum 0 v_i = 0$ to imply dependence. But with the above definition, you've already singled out a vector to have a coefficient of 1 (which is not 0) so you don't need any condition on the c's anymore.


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